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Created by Individual CPL ClassesIndividual CPL Classes

AIR NAVIGATION

Full-length modules simulate the live session experience of the actual DGCA examinations. They have been curated to support you with your final preparation. We recommend that you attempt full-length exams after you have completed the time-oriented and open-book exam modules.

1 / 100

In an aircraft thermometer with an electrical resistance sensor to measure the air temperature, the resistance wire element is probably:

2 / 100

An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately?

3 / 100

An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS
should be set to:

4 / 100

The sensors of an INS measure:

5 / 100

Given:
True track 180°
Drift 8°R
Compass heading 195° Deviation -2°
Calculate the variation?

6 / 100

Real wander of a gyro can be caused by:

7 / 100

The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC
The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at?

8 / 100

Which of the following is correct when the variation is West?

9 / 100

Given: True Hdg = 035o, TAS = 245 kt, Track (T) = 046o, GS = 220kt. Calculate the W/V?

10 / 100

An aircraft was over ‘Q’ at 1320 hours flying direct to ‘R’. Given: Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 3016 nm, TAS 480 kt, Mean wind component ‘out’ -90kt, mean wind component ‘back’ +75 kt safe endurance 10 Hrs. The distance from ‘Q’ to the PSR is:

11 / 100

The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots

12 / 100

In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this liquid is to:

13 / 100

Referring to DME during the initial stage of the “search” pattern before “lock-on”:

14 / 100

An aircraft is flying at FL350 with a JSA deviation of +8. The mach no is 0.83 and the TAS 485. If the aircraft descends to FL300 and maintains the same mach no and TAS, the JSA deviation will now be:

15 / 100

The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies: The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies:

16 / 100

Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct?

17 / 100

Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable takeoff mass?

18 / 100

At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the aircraft:

1 – Dry operating mass.
2 – Operating mass.

Which statement is correct?

 

19 / 100

With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest?

20 / 100

False nose-up attitude displayed on air driven artificial horizon during the take-off run is caused by:

21 / 100

A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pps. Ignoring pulse
width and flyback at the CRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:

22 / 100

What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

23 / 100

Given:
TAS = 270 kt,
Track (T) = 260°,
W/V = 275/30kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?

24 / 100

An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/HR. What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR?

25 / 100

Given: True Hdg = 145o, TAS = 240 kts, Track (T) = 150o, GS = 210 kts. Calculate the W/V?

26 / 100

Given:
TAS = 225 kt,
HDG (T) = 123°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?

27 / 100

An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:

28 / 100

A pressure head is subject to the following errors:

29 / 100

The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 0.01°/HR.
After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt, the error on the aeroplane position is approximately?

30 / 100

During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is north aligned by inputs from:

31 / 100

In conditions of clear air turbulence:

32 / 100

The flight log gives the following data : True track,
Drift,
True heading,

Magnetic variation,
Magnetic heading,
Compass deviation,
Compass heading
The right solution, in the same order, is?

33 / 100

In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the :

34 / 100

Given: True HDG = 002o, TAS = 130 kts, Track (T) = 353o, GS = 132 kt. Calculate the W/V?

35 / 100

When landing on a northerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?

36 / 100

The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity
monitoring is:

37 / 100

The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by:

38 / 100

A pilot accidentally turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident:

39 / 100

A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:

40 / 100

On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:

41 / 100

DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

42 / 100

If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:

43 / 100

In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:

44 / 100

The difference between static air temperature and total air temperature is known as:

45 / 100

If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb:

46 / 100

Given :
True altitude 9000 FT, OAT -32°C,
CAS 200 kt.
What is the TAS?

47 / 100

Given:
TAS = 227 kt,
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS

48 / 100

VFE is the?

49 / 100

Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?

50 / 100

You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions : – dry operating mass : 2800 kg – trip fuel : 300 kg – payload : 400 kg – maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg – maximum landing mass : 3700 kg

51 / 100

The period of validity of the navigational database is:

52 / 100

An aircraft passes position A (60°00’N 120°00’W) on route to position B (60°00’N 140°30’W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?

53 / 100

The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized:

54 / 100

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg.
Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg.
Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg.

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg.
The take-off and landing masses are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg.
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg.
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg.
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg.
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is?

55 / 100

Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?

56 / 100

Given:
GS = 95 kts, Distance from A to B = 480 NM. What is the time from A to B?

57 / 100

Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct?

58 / 100

Given:
GS = 236 kt. Distance from A to B = 354 nm. What is the time from A to B?

59 / 100

Which of the following is not an advantage of a slotted antenna (phase array)?

60 / 100

The transponder code for Hijacking is;

61 / 100

The QNH is by definition the value of the?

62 / 100

To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:

63 / 100

When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate?

64 / 100

In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :

65 / 100

When descending below the tropopause under normal conditions (increasing temperature) at a constant CAS:

66 / 100

The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000.
The actual distance between these two point is approximately?

67 / 100

Aircraft air temperature thermometers are shielded to protect them from:

68 / 100

The indication at Figure shows:

Question Image

69 / 100

The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is sent to:

70 / 100

Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane

71 / 100

Given:
A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian. Grid track 344°,
Longitude 115°00’W,
Calculate the true course?

72 / 100

During the take-off run an air driven artificial horizon will usually indicate:

73 / 100

The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

74 / 100

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions?

75 / 100

An electrically driven artificial horizon has less errors during the take-off run because:

76 / 100

The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330° and gives a 3 dots fly right demand
with FROM indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station?

77 / 100

One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as ‘lock-in’ is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this error?

78 / 100

The IRS position can be updated:

79 / 100

The phase of the reference wave is 110° as the phase of the variable wave is 315°.
What is the phase difference?

80 / 100

Given:
GS = 120 kts, Distance from A to B = 84 nm. What is the time from A to B?

81 / 100

Given AD = Air distance GD= Ground distance TAS = True Airspeed GS = Ground speed. Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?

82 / 100

The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit:

83 / 100

An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 329 on the
OBS of the deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the
deviation indicator will show:

84 / 100

The gyro in a rate of turn indicator has (i) _______________ operating speed than the gyros used in other instruments because (ii)______________-.

85 / 100

An aircraft at latitude 02°20’N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be?

86 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass?

87 / 100

How is the direct reading magnetic compass made Aperiodic or dead beat?

88 / 100

Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 NM, GS out 435 kt, GS back 385 kt, Safe endurance 9HR, the distance from ‘Q’ to the PSR is:

89 / 100

Given:
TAS = 290 kt,
True HDG = 171°,
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt
Calculate the drift angle and GS?

90 / 100

The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide:

91 / 100

Given:
TAS = 190 kt,
True HDG = 085°,
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?

92 / 100

If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:

93 / 100

Given:
TAS = 155 kt,
Track (T) = 305°,
W/V = 160/18kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?

94 / 100

Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?

95 / 100

Turbulent flow around a pressure head will cause:

96 / 100

In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :

97 / 100

Which positions can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?

98 / 100

The value of magnetic variation

99 / 100

The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are
affected by coastal refraction may be reduced by:

100 / 100

What is density altitude?

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