Hi [swpm_show_member_info column="first_name"], Best of luck!! /100 Created by Individual CPL Classes AIR NAVIGATION Full-length modules simulate the live session experience of the actual DGCA examinations. They have been curated to support you with your final preparation. We recommend that you attempt full-length exams after you have completed the time-oriented and open-book exam modules. 1 / 100 The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radarscreen are ……….. for very light or no returns, …………… for light returns, ……….. formedium returns and ………… for strong returns. grey green yellow red black green yellow red black yellow green magenta black green yellow magenta 2 / 100 An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance travelled is? 5420 NM 2040 NM 1788 NM 3720 NM 3 / 100 When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is? Turning right with not enough bank Turning left with not enough bank Turning left with too much bank Turning right with too much bank 4 / 100 In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as : FL320 S3200 32000 F320 5 / 100 An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W? 059° 239° 101° 329 6 / 100 VLO is defined as: Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground The long range cruise speed The maximum speed for landing gear operation Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground 7 / 100 Given:True course 300°drift 8°Rvariation 10°Wdeviation -4°Calculate the compass heading? 306° 322° 294° 278° 8 / 100 Given:TAS = 135 kt,HDG (°T) = 278,W/V = 140/20ktCalculate the Track (°T) and GS? 275-150kt 283 – 150 kt 279-152kt 282-148kt 9 / 100 The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)? An antenna and compressibility correction. A compressibility and density correction. An instrument and density correction. An instrument and position/pressure error correction. 10 / 100 In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder – mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is: B A P C 11 / 100 V2 has to be equal to or higher than: 1.15 VMCG 1.15 VR VSO VMCA 12 / 100 The operating mass of an aircraft is : The empty mass plus the trip fuel mass The dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel mass The empty mass plus crew, crew baggage and catering The empty mass plus the take-off fuel mass 13 / 100 Which of the following statements concerning the earth’s magnetic field is completely correct? At the earth’s magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geographic equator is north or south of the magnetic equator The earth’s magnetic field can be classified as transient, semi-permanent or permanent Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component The blue pole of the earth’s magnetic field is situated in North Canada 14 / 100 Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 NM, GS out 435 kt, GS back 385 kt. The time from ‘Q’ to the PET is: 110 MIN 106 MIN 114 MIN 102 MIN 15 / 100 The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to: reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth’s magnetic field place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors 16 / 100 A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80.A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T). What is the longitude of B? 011°E 008°E 009°36’E 019°E 17 / 100 The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass are the same value. differ by the mass of usable fuel. differ by the value of the traffic load mass. differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass. 18 / 100 The formula used to calculate apparent wander of a directional gyro in the northern hemisphere is: -15 sine latitude in degrees per hour. +15 sine latitude in degrees for the time of running. +15 sine latitude in degrees per hour. 15 sine latitude in degrees per hour increasing. 19 / 100 When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft: it should be set to the central position and left there it should be checked at regular intervals it should be set to 15° it should be rendered inoperative 20 / 100 Given the following data determine the actual take-off mass? Maximum structural take-off mass 72 000 kg.Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg.Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg.Trip fuel: 18 000 Kg.Taxi fuel: 800 kg. Contingency fuel: 900 kg. Alternate fuel: 700 kg. Final reserve fuel: 2000 kg. 74 000 kg 72 000 kg 70 400 kg 69 600 kg 21 / 100 The purpose of a compass swing is to? Align the lubber lines with true north. Confirm the accuracy of the Schuler tuning. Align compass north with magnetic north. Align compass north with true north. 22 / 100 A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft’s position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and Fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained. Set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway. Fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained. fly reverse heading and associated timings until the point of departure is regained. 23 / 100 ADF quadrantal error is caused by: the aircraft’s major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB transmissions station interference and/or night effect static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo’s Fire NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path 24 / 100 For a given track the: Wind component = +45 kt Drift angle = 15° leftTAS = 240 ktWhat is the wind component on the reverse track? -45 kt -35 kt -65 kt -55 kt 25 / 100 In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as : IAS TAS Groundspeed CAS 26 / 100 An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/HR. What will be its latitude after 3 HR? 12°15’S 03°50’S 22°00’S 02°00’S 27 / 100 A 10 deg bearing change abeam, a VOR takes 4 minutes 30 seconds If you turned and flew to the VOR, what is the approximate distance, if the ground speed is 180 kt; 13.5nm 81 nm 133 nm 28 / 100 A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg.Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg.Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg.Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg.The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg.Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg.Taxi Fuel: 250 kg.Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg. Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg.The maximum traffic load that can be carried is? 25 800 kg 17 840 kg 18 170 kg 13 950 kg 29 / 100 In conditions of clear air turbulence: the vertical acceleration pump will not be affected. the IVSI is more sensitive. both types will react the same. the standard VSI is more sensitive. 30 / 100 A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from: any of the above twin DME twin VOR VOR/DME 31 / 100 Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass?T V M D C 130, 2E, 128, -1, 129 130, 2W, 132, -1, 133 130, 2E, 132, -1, 133 130, 2W, 128, -1, 127 32 / 100 A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pps. The time intervalbetween the leading edges of successive pulses is: 3.64 milliseconds 36.4 milliseconds 36.4 microseconds 3.64 microseconds 33 / 100 The ideal length for a Marconi aerial for a frequency of 406 MHz is: 36.9 cm 17.5 cm 35.1 cm 18.5 cm 34 / 100 The QNH is by definition the value of the? Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is given. Atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft. 35 / 100 The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized: in pitch and roll whether the stabilization is on or of in pitch and roll in pitch, roll and yaw in pitch and roll but only when 0° tilt has been selected 36 / 100 NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ……. band the receiver determines position by ……. UHF secondary radar principles SHF range position lines UHF range position lines SHF secondary radar principles 37 / 100 One Nano second is; 0.000,000,0001 of a second 0.000,000,001 of a second of a second of a microsecond 38 / 100 An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with : EDDM 2H15 EDDM 1415 EDDM 0215 EDDM 1215 39 / 100 Which of the following is not an advantage of a slotted antenna (phase array)? Reduced side lobes Improved resolution Directivity Reduced power 40 / 100 The RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings ofNDBs and VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application ofmagnetic variation is:NDB VOR beacon position beacon position aircraft position beacon position aircraft position aircraft position beacon position aircraft position 41 / 100 The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is: pulse width pulse repetition interval transmitter power pulse repetition frequency 42 / 100 The ICAO definition of ETA is the: estimated time enroute actual time of arrival at a point or fix estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix estimated time of arrival at destination. 43 / 100 In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ? AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION EQUIPMENT ROUTE OTHER INFORMATION 44 / 100 An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be 141100 kg 19650 kg 39105 kg 121450 kg 45 / 100 How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ? 1 MIN 55 SEC 2 MIN 30 SEC 0 MIN 34 SEC 1 MIN 07 SEC 46 / 100 In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of : full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres 47 / 100 The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude is constant along a meridian of longitude is constant across the whole map is constant along a parallel of latitude 48 / 100 On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately: 1:2780000 1:5560000 1:556000 1:278000 49 / 100 A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receivefrequency of: 1025 Mhz 962 Mhz 902 Mhz 1030 Mhz 50 / 100 For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 3h 06minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel. 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel. 51 / 100 When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate? No turn. Northerly turn. Rapidly increasing oscillations. Southerly turn. 52 / 100 In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a “change of speed” is defined as : 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more 53 / 100 On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are: straight lines curves concave to the equator curves convex to the equator ellipses 54 / 100 The rhumb line track between position A (45°00’N, 010°00’W) and position B (48°30’N, 015°00’W) is approximately: 330 345 300 315 55 / 100 A ground based radar with a scanner rotation of 60 rpm, a beamwidth in the orderof 0.5° and a PRF of 10000 pps would be: a high resolution Surveillance Approach Radar a Precision Approach Radar an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of 16 NM an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of 8 NM 56 / 100 An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility.If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is? 1390 FT/MIN 1290 FT/MIN 1340 FT/MIN 1240 FT/MIN 57 / 100 Given:True HDG = 054°, TAS = 450 kt,Track (T) = 059°, GS = 416 kt. Calculate the W/V? 010/45kt 005/50kt 010/50kt 010/55kt 58 / 100 For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel. Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel. Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel. Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel. 59 / 100 The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus traffic load and unuseable fuel. traffic load and crew standard mass. unuseable and crew standard mass. traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass. 60 / 100 A “TCAS II” (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides? A simple intruding airplane proximity warning. 11) The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. The intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only. 61 / 100 If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked? The VSI indication will be too high when climbing. The VSI indication will be too high at all times. The VSI indication will be too low when descending. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending. 62 / 100 Given:TAS = 130 kt,Track (T) = 003°,W/V = 190/40kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS? 357 – 168 kt 002-173kt 359-166kt 001-170kt 63 / 100 During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)? The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. 64 / 100 Given: TAS = 132 kt,True HDG = 257°W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS? 4°L-167kt 2°R-166kt 4°R-165kt 3°L-166kt 65 / 100 ROT indications are? Proportional to TAS Proportional to CAS Proportional to EAS Proportional to mass 66 / 100 A gyro with only one degree of freedom is known as a: space gyro. tied gyro. earth gyro. rate gyro. 67 / 100 A force is applied to deflect a gyroscope. If the RPM of the gyro is then doubled the precession rate will: decrease. increase. remain as before. cease altogether. 68 / 100 The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in: the vertical and horizontal plane the horizontal plane any plane the vertical plane 69 / 100 An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kts. It departs A at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from A, the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at B? 1115UTC 1044 UTC 1050 UTC 1110 UTC 70 / 100 What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism? 60º 45º 180º 90º 71 / 100 The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM sectionof the AIP guarantees a protection ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from interference from other VORs on the same channel is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to trave is only applicable by day 72 / 100 A perfectly balanced space gyro at the equator has its spin axis aligned with true north. After 6 hours the axis will be aligned with: true south direction. true north direction. true west direction. true east direction. 73 / 100 The Take-off mass The maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off but excluding fuel The mass of the aeroplane including everyone and everything contained within it at the start of the take-off run The maximum permissible total aeroplane mass at the start of the take-off run The maximum permissible total aeroplane mass on completion of the refueling operation 74 / 100 The maximum range at which VOR bearing information will be used by the B737-400FMC for fixing is: 50 NM 10 NM 60 NM 25 NM 75 / 100 The ‘departure’ between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N ‘x’ is 900 NM. What is the longitude of ‘x’? 170°W 140°W 145°E 175°E 76 / 100 A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: Radial 180°+/- 1°.Distance = 200 NM.What is the approximate error? +/- 1 NM +/- 3.5 NM +/- 2 NM +/- 7 NM 77 / 100 Given:TAS = 480 kt,HDG (°T) = 040°,W/V = 090/60kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? 032-425kt 028-415kt 036-435kt 034-445kt 78 / 100 Given:Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg,Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg,Dry operating mass 35500 kg,Traffic load 14500 kg,Trip fuel 4900 kg,Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg.Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel 11100 kg 11400 kg 8600 kg 14400 kg 79 / 100 In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during pre-flight to: manually initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information automatically initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information 80 / 100 A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature? 9 NM 12 NM 6 NM 3 NM 81 / 100 The trip fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5350 kg. fuel consumption in holding mode is 6000kg/hr. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? 13050 kg 10000kg 13000kg 12700 kg 82 / 100 If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is: 170 NM 315 NM 630 NM 340 NM 83 / 100 On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female). 76kg 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female). 84kg 84 / 100 An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is? 69 NM 79 NM 59 NM 49 NM 85 / 100 The bandwidth produced when a radio frequency (RF) of 4716 kHz is amplitudemodulated with an audio frequency (AF) of 6 kHz is: 12 kHz 9 kHz 3 kHz 6 kHz 86 / 100 An altimeter with ________ set on the subscale will indicate _______, but with _______ set, the altimeter will show _________ QNH; height above touch down; 1013; height amsl. QNE; pressure altitude; QNH; height above airfield datum. 1013; pressure altitude; QNH; height above mean sea level. QFE; height above the airfield datum; 1013; height amsl. 87 / 100 An air driven DGI is corrected for apparent wander at 56 N. If the aircraft is maintaining constant DGI readings: when flying south from 56 N the true heading will decrease. when flying west from 56 N the true heading will increase. when flying north from 56 N the true heading of the aircraft will decrease. when flying east from 56 N the true heading will decrease. 88 / 100 An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 NM, if theground station is situated 2500 ft AMSL which of the following is the lowestaltitude at which contact is likely to be made? 1378 ft 36100 ft 190 ft 84100 ft 89 / 100 The term ‘useful load’ as applied to an aeroplane includes traffic load only. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only. traffic load plus useable fuel. the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel. 90 / 100 In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a “change of speed” is defined as : 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more 91 / 100 Given:TAS = 155 kt,Track (T) = 305°,W/V = 160/18kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS? 301-169kt 305-169kt 309-170kt 309-141kt 92 / 100 A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying from PARIS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to: 1 hour at holding speed 45 minutes at holding speed 2 hours at cruise speed 30 minutes at holding speed 93 / 100 When turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate? Too much nose up and too much bank angle. Too little nose up and too much bank angle. Too little nose up and too little bank angle Too much nose up and too little bank angle 94 / 100 Position ‘A’ is N00° E100°.Position ‘B’ is 240°(T), 200 NM from ‘A’. What is the position of ‘B’? N01°40′ E097°07′ S01°40′ E097°07′ S01°40′ E101°40′ N01°40′ E101°40′ 95 / 100 The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field? Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles. Weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole. Is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°. Is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50°N and 50°S. 96 / 100 Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on: weight, force applied and speed of rotation. weight, rate of precession and speed of rotation. rate of precession and the force applied. mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation 97 / 100 Given:true track 352°variation 11° Wdeviation is -5°drift 10°R.Calculate the compass heading? 346° 018° 358° 025° 98 / 100 At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To convert this departure into change of longitude is has to: be multiplied by Secant of the latitude. be multiplied by Cosine of the latitude. be divided by Secant of the latitude. be divided by Tangent of the latitude. 99 / 100 The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is: change latitude velocity along the local meridian groundspeed latitude 100 / 100 When is the magnetic compass most effective? On the geographic equator In the region of the magnetic North Pole. In the region of the magnetic South Pole. About midway between the magnetic poles Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz
