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Created by Individual CPL ClassesIndividual CPL Classes


Full-length modules simulate the live session experience of the actual DGCA examinations. They have been curated to support you with your final preparation. We recommend that you attempt full-length exams after you have completed the time-oriented and open-book exam modules.

1 / 100

How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?

2 / 100

A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian. Grid track 344°,
Longitude 115°00'W,
Calculate the true course?

3 / 100

Which of the following is correct when the variation is West?

4 / 100

The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:

5 / 100

Total air temperature is __________ ?

6 / 100

An aircraft flying at FL250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft
AMSL. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?

7 / 100

ADF quadrantal error is caused by:

8 / 100

The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 6.98 cm is:

9 / 100

The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:

10 / 100

On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is approximately:

11 / 100

True HDG = 206°, TAS = 140 kt,
Track (T) = 207°, GS = 135 kt. Calculate the W/V?

12 / 100

Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg. Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg. Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg. Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg. Trip fuel= 4 000 kg.

Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg. The maximum traffic load is?

13 / 100

Excluding blockages, the full list of errors of the ASI is:

14 / 100

On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory Mach number (M). The flight conditions are, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are as follows: FL370,

M=0.8,SAT=-60degC,HC=-15kts. FL330,M=0.78,SAT=-60degC,HWC=-5kts. FL290,M=0.8,SAT=- 55degC,HWC=-15kts. FL270,M=0.76,SAT=-43degC,HWC=0kts.

The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is?

15 / 100

An aircraft is intending to track from NDB ‘A’ to NDB ‘B’ on a track of 050°(T), heading
060°(T). If the RBI shows the relative bearing of ‘A’ to be 180° and the relative bearing
of ‘B’ to be 330° then the aircraft is:

16 / 100

An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have been entered.
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is?

17 / 100

Concerning FMC operation, which of the following is true

18 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct?

19 / 100

Course 040°(T),
TAS is 120 kt,
Wind speed 30 kt.
Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of?

20 / 100

The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit:

21 / 100

To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:

22 / 100

A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?

23 / 100

The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°,
Drift angle 5° right,

TAS 480 kt.
SAT (static air temperature) -51°C. The W/V being experienced is?

24 / 100

The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field?

25 / 100

The FDR starts recording when?

26 / 100

Civil twilight is defined by :

27 / 100

A magnetic compass must be swung?

28 / 100

OAT is ISA standard,
CAS is 200 kt,
Track is 222°(M),
Heading is 215°(M),
Variation is 15°W.
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN. What is the W/V?

29 / 100

A ground based radar with a scanner rotation of 60 rpm, a beamwidth in the order
of 0.5° and a PRF of 10000 pps would be:

30 / 100

In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during pre-flight to:

31 / 100

When using VDF, errors:

32 / 100

Find the distance to the point of safe return (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 20 kt, Fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 30 kt, Fuel flow 2150 kg

33 / 100

For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:

34 / 100

When a DME transponder becomes saturated:

35 / 100

Distance A to B is 325 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1130 UTC, 1205 UTC fix obtained 165nm along track. What GS must be obtained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?

36 / 100

An aircraft has one altimeter set to QFE and one to aerodrome QNH 1000 mb. If the airfield elevation is 300 ft, immediately before take-off the altimeter with QFE set will read _________ and the other _________ If the QFE altimeter is set to 1013 when passing through the transition altitude 3000 ft, it will read _________ (Assume 1 mb = 30 ft).

37 / 100

TAS = 250 kt,
HDG (T) = 029°,
W/V = 035/45kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?

38 / 100

The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or finishing a climb or descent. The error is a result of:

39 / 100

Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself
and pulses intended for other aircraft because:

40 / 100

False nose-up attitude displayed on air driven artificial horizon during the take-off run is caused by:

41 / 100

A pilot accidentally turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident:

42 / 100

What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?

43 / 100

Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)?

44 / 100

The maximum range at which VOR bearing information will be used by the B737-400
FMC for fixing is:

45 / 100

Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of:

46 / 100

The code identification of a VOR is transmitted about every………… seconds

47 / 100

For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :

48 / 100

The maximum range an aircraft at 2500 ft can communicate with a VHF station at 196
ft is:

49 / 100

If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at :

50 / 100

IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20oC. What is the TAS?

51 / 100

A "current flight plan" is a :

52 / 100

For a given track the: Wind component = +45 kt Drift angle = 15° left
TAS = 240 kt

What is the wind component on the reverse track?

53 / 100

Given : true track 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt.
Find: wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)?

54 / 100

ACARS stands for:

55 / 100

The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the:

56 / 100

Total Air Temperature is _______ than __________ by an amount which is proportional to ___________?

57 / 100

When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:

58 / 100

A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

59 / 100

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers ?


1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alterdante

60 / 100

Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 NM, GS out 435 kt, GS back 385 kt. The time from ‘Q’ to the PET is:

61 / 100

Distance A to B is 90 NM, Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4NM to the right of course. What heading alteration must be made to reach B?

62 / 100

Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared with a standby compass?

63 / 100

The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:

64 / 100

An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?

65 / 100

A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last
identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:

66 / 100

GS = 120 kts, Distance from A to B = 84 nm. What is the time from A to B?

67 / 100

The upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5° glide slope

68 / 100

The relationships between TAS, mach number (MNo) and local speed of sound (LSS) is:

69 / 100

TAS = 227 kt,
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS

70 / 100

Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?

71 / 100

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:

72 / 100

The protection ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the promulgated range/designated
operational coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at night because of:

73 / 100

The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:

74 / 100

An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?

75 / 100

The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:

76 / 100

Reference zero is a point 35ft vertically beneath the aircraft at the end of:

77 / 100

What do the upper and lower limits of the limits of the yellow arc on an ASI represent?

78 / 100

Aircraft height 2500 FT,
ILS GP angle 3°.
At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP?

79 / 100

Apparent wander may be corrected in a DGI by:

80 / 100

TAS = 465 kt,
Track (T) = 007°,
W/V = 300/80kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?

81 / 100

Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct?

82 / 100

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:

83 / 100

The standard mass for a child is

84 / 100

The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring gyros is approximately:

85 / 100

The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.

86 / 100

TAS = 485 kt,
HDG (T) = 168°,
W/V = 130/75kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?

87 / 100

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a “traffic” when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a?

88 / 100

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be

89 / 100

A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels

90 / 100

In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are

91 / 100

Why does the value of magnetic variation on a chart change with time?

92 / 100

A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is?

93 / 100

An air temperature probe may be aspirated in order to:

94 / 100

The specified maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:

95 / 100

An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same position is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?

96 / 100

An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to?

97 / 100

Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Load= 7600 kg
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040kg

Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg

Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?

98 / 100

On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as:

99 / 100

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass?

100 / 100

An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance travelled is?

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