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Created by Individual CPL ClassesIndividual CPL Classes


Full-length modules simulate the live session experience of the actual DGCA examinations. They have been curated to support you with your final preparation. We recommend that you attempt full-length exams after you have completed the time-oriented and open-book exam modules.

1 / 100

The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar
screen are ……….. for very light or no returns, …………… for light returns, ……….. for
medium returns and ………… for strong returns.

2 / 100

An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance travelled is?

3 / 100

When, in flight, the needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is?

4 / 100

In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :

5 / 100

An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?

6 / 100

VLO is defined as:

7 / 100

True course 300°
drift 8°R
variation 10°W
deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading?

8 / 100

TAS = 135 kt,
HDG (°T) = 278,
W/V = 140/20kt
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?

9 / 100

The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)?

10 / 100

In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder – mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:

11 / 100

V2 has to be equal to or higher than:

12 / 100

The operating mass of an aircraft is :

13 / 100

Which of the following statements concerning the earth’s magnetic field is completely correct?

14 / 100

Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1760 NM, GS out 435 kt, GS back 385 kt. The time from ‘Q’ to the PET is:

15 / 100

The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:

16 / 100

A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80.
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T). What is the longitude of B?

17 / 100

The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass

18 / 100

The formula used to calculate apparent wander of a directional gyro in the northern hemisphere is:

19 / 100

When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft:

20 / 100

Given the following data determine the actual take-off mass? Maximum structural take-off mass 72 000 kg.
Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg.
Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg.

Trip fuel: 18 000 Kg.
Taxi fuel: 800 kg. Contingency fuel: 900 kg. Alternate fuel: 700 kg. Final reserve fuel: 2000 kg.

21 / 100

The purpose of a compass swing is to?

22 / 100

A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft’s position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and

23 / 100

ADF quadrantal error is caused by:

24 / 100

For a given track the: Wind component = +45 kt Drift angle = 15° left
TAS = 240 kt

What is the wind component on the reverse track?

25 / 100

In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as :

26 / 100

An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/HR. What will be its latitude after 3 HR?

27 / 100

A 10 deg bearing change abeam, a VOR takes 4 minutes 30 seconds If you turned and flew to the VOR, what is the approximate distance, if the ground speed is 180 kt;

28 / 100

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane’s structural limits: Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg.
Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg.
Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg.

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg.
The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg.

Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg.
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg.
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg. Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is?

29 / 100

In conditions of clear air turbulence:

30 / 100

A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

31 / 100

Which of the following is the correct conversion from True to Compass?

T             V          M         D        C

32 / 100

A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pps. The time interval
between the leading edges of successive pulses is:

33 / 100

The ideal length for a Marconi aerial for a frequency of 406 MHz is:

34 / 100

The QNH is by definition the value of the?

35 / 100

The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilized:

36 / 100

NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ……. band the receiver determines position by …….

37 / 100

One Nano second is;

38 / 100

An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :

39 / 100

Which of the following is not an advantage of a slotted antenna (phase array)?

40 / 100

The RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application of
magnetic variation is:

NDB           VOR

41 / 100

The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:

42 / 100

The ICAO definition of ETA is the:

43 / 100

In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ?

44 / 100

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be

45 / 100

How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?

46 / 100

In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :

47 / 100

The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart

48 / 100

On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:

49 / 100

A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive
frequency of:

50 / 100

For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
Flight time: 3h 06min
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 8 kg
Block fuel: 118 kg
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?

51 / 100

When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?

52 / 100

In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a “change of speed” is defined as :

53 / 100

On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are:

54 / 100

The rhumb line track between position A (45°00’N, 010°00’W) and position B (48°30’N, 015°00’W) is approximately:

55 / 100

A ground based radar with a scanner rotation of 60 rpm, a beamwidth in the order
of 0.5° and a PRF of 10000 pps would be:

56 / 100

An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility.
If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is?

57 / 100

True HDG = 054°, TAS = 450 kt,
Track (T) = 059°, GS = 416 kt. Calculate the W/V?

58 / 100

For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as:

59 / 100

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus

60 / 100

A “TCAS II” (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides?

61 / 100

If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

62 / 100

TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 003°,
W/V = 190/40kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?

63 / 100

During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)?

64 / 100

Given: TAS = 132 kt,

True HDG = 257°
W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
Calculate the drift angle and GS?

65 / 100

ROT indications are?

66 / 100

A gyro with only one degree of freedom is known as a:

67 / 100

A force is applied to deflect a gyroscope. If the RPM of the gyro is then doubled the precession rate will:

68 / 100

The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:

69 / 100

An aircraft is planned to fly from position A to position B, distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kts. It departs A at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from A, the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at B?

70 / 100

What is the maximum value of dip that can be caused by the vertical component of terrestrial magnetism?

71 / 100

The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM section
of the AIP

72 / 100

A perfectly balanced space gyro at the equator has its spin axis aligned with true north. After 6 hours the axis will be aligned with:

73 / 100

The Take-off mass

74 / 100

The maximum range at which VOR bearing information will be used by the B737-400
FMC for fixing is:

75 / 100

The ‘departure’ between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N ‘x’ is 900 NM. What is the longitude of ‘x’?

76 / 100

A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: Radial 180°+/- 1°.
Distance = 200 NM.
What is the approximate error?

77 / 100

TAS = 480 kt,
HDG (°T) = 040°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?

78 / 100

Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg,
Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg,
Dry operating mass 35500 kg,
Traffic load 14500 kg,
Trip fuel 4900 kg,
Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel

79 / 100

In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during pre-flight to:

80 / 100

A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?

81 / 100

The trip fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5350 kg. fuel consumption in holding mode is 6000kg/hr. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?

82 / 100

If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:

83 / 100

On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is

84 / 100

An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is?

85 / 100

The bandwidth produced when a radio frequency (RF) of 4716 kHz is amplitude
modulated with an audio frequency (AF) of 6 kHz is:

86 / 100

An altimeter with ________ set on the subscale will indicate _______, but with _______ set, the altimeter will show _________

87 / 100

An air driven DGI is corrected for apparent wander at 56 N. If the aircraft is maintaining constant DGI readings:

88 / 100

An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 NM, if the
ground station is situated 2500 ft AMSL which of the following is the lowest
altitude at which contact is likely to be made?

89 / 100

The term ‘useful load’ as applied to an aeroplane includes

90 / 100

In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a “change of speed” is defined as :

91 / 100

TAS = 155 kt,
Track (T) = 305°,
W/V = 160/18kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?

92 / 100

A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying from PARIS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to:

93 / 100

When turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon indicate?

94 / 100

Position ‘A’ is N00° E100°.
Position ‘B’ is 240°(T), 200 NM from ‘A’. What is the position of ‘B’?

95 / 100

The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field?

96 / 100

Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:

97 / 100

true track 352°
variation 11° W
deviation is -5°
drift 10°R.
Calculate the compass heading?

98 / 100

At the second stage of integration E/W speed is converted into E/W distance gone. To convert this departure into change of longitude is has to:

99 / 100

The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:

100 / 100

When is the magnetic compass most effective?

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